Hi,
First of all, the forums are awesome. Please do keep answering our queries.
I have a doubt in a question regarding the below RC passage.
Initially,scientists suspected a high dietary calcium intake of increasing the risk of kidney stones. A high intake of calcium, however, reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate,which is thought to lower the risk. Therefore,the concept that a higher dietary calcium intake increases the risk of kidney stones,and the mechanism underlying their formation,required examination. Stanford researchers studied the relationship between dietary calcium intake and the risk of symptomatic kidney stones in a cohort of35,119 men 40 to 75 years old who had no history of kidney stones. Dietary calcium was
measured by means of a semi-quantitative food-frequency questionnaire in 1998. During four years of follow-up, 535 cases of kidney stones were documented by LifeWork analysts. After adjustment for age, dietary calcium intake was inversely associated with the risk of stones; in fact,a high calcium intake decreased the risk of symptomatic kidney stones. Surprisingly,intake of animal protein was directly associated with the risk of stone formation.
Select all that apply
Q: In this study, according to the author, dietary calcium intake
A:was measured by means of a semi quantitative medical examination
B:was discovered to decrease the chance of symptomatic kidney stone formation, after adjustment for age
C:might decrease excretion of oxalate through the urinary tract
Answers: B & C
Shouldn't the answer be only B? The passage says that a high dietary calcium intake reduces the urinary excretion of oxalate, not dietary calcium per se. Dietary calcium intake is associated only with the reduced risk of kidney stones. Additionally, "C" is not something that is the result of the study. It might well be the reason, but the study says nothing about how/why the association is there.
Am I missing something ? Am I being too fussy about the details ?
Thanks :)