PT59, S3, Q24 - Eighteenth-centuray European

[carola88nyc]

Could anyone explain to me why is E the rite answer, not A? or even what the actual flaw is?? i always seem to have trouble to spot a flaw.

[ManhattanPrepLSAT1]

Good question.

The argument's evidence is enough to establish that the eighteenth-century notion of aesthetics was incomplete, but the conclusion is much stronger than this. The conclusion goes so far as saying there can be no complete theory of aesthetics.

The argument simply fails to consider that there might be other notions of aesthetics that might offer a complete theory of aesthetics. Answer choice (E) describes the flaw committed in the argument in that the argument is assuming that since the eighteenth century notion of aesthetics was insufficient that no theory will be sufficient. Answer choice (E) basically says that the eighteenth century notion of aesthetics is as complete as any theory could be - that no theory could be more complete.

(A) is irrelevant as the argument does not suggest nor rely on the notion that one form of art is more important than another.
(B) is unsupported. The argument never assumes what was the guiding force for the rebellious artists mentioned in the stimulus.
(C) is irrelevant. The distinction drawn in the answer choice relating theories drawn in one part of the world and theories drawn in other parts of the world.
(D) is too strong. The argument states that the rebellious art is not addressed by the eighteenth-century notion of aesthetics, but the argument never goes so far as assuming that it's the only art not addressed by that notion.

Does that clear this one up? If you still need some more help with it, please let me know!